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Post by rvclem on Jan 29, 2009 14:42:05 GMT -5
Hi all
Well, I finally had my MRI done last week and picked up a copy of the report yesterday. I've been trying to read and learn about this without much luck in reading/following in my layman’s terms for better understanding.
Anyway, a whole list of things in the 'head' were noted as normal. There is a comment: Shift of the infundibular stalk to the left side without definite hypo-enhancing nodule. A small occult pituitary micro-adenoma, resulting in the shift cannot entirely be excluded. Clinical correlation and follow-up studies are suggested. No definite evidence of a suprasellar mass or mass effect of the optic chiasm.
Can anyone shed some light as to why the stalk could/would be slanted and or if this could alone create the cause of low hormone production?
I was able to get a prescription for Estrogen/Testosterone compounded cream, DHEA (already take Progesterone) and consideration for GH as these new meds settle in.
Vicky
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Post by Chris Jackson on Feb 1, 2009 12:52:35 GMT -5
It could be slanted because that is how it grew (no one's perfect). The report basically says, small tumor possible, but if so, not detectable. I wouldn't worry about it, except in that your pit and stalk aren't normal could be why you have hypopit (if tests indicated).
Read the sticky of how to be successful with your HRT (in Adrenal forum). I don't recommend women take DHEA and I don't recommend sex hormones be treated until cortisol and thyroid are well treated. Jumping into everything at once in the vast majority of causes means you won't be succesfull optimizing any of them. GH is the last thing to treat and that could be a couple of years down the road (retest Igf-1 and GH) after everything else is well treated. Some people find then they don't need HGH therapy.
Chris
Chris
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